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Morality of Contraception

Posted October 15, 2007 , By Joshua LeBlanc

There has been recent buzz in the news as of late concerning the Bishops in Connecticut and their statement concerning the administering of emergency contraception, a portion of which I quote:

Nonetheless, to administer Plan B pills in Catholic hospitals to victims of rape a pregnancy test to determine that the woman has not conceived is sufficient.  An ovulation test will not be required.  The administration of Plan B pills in this instance cannot be judged to be the commission of an abortion because of such doubt about how Plan B pills and similar drugs work and because of the current impossibility of knowing from the ovulation test whether a new life is present.  To administer Plan B pills without an ovulation test is not an intrinsically evil act.

Since the teaching authority of the Church has not definitively resolved this matter and since there is serious doubt about how Plan B pills work, the Catholic Bishops of Connecticut have stated that Catholic hospitals in the State may follow protocols that do not require an ovulation test in the treatment of victims of rape. A pregnancy test approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration suffices. If it becomes clear that Plan B pills would lead to an early chemical abortion in some instances, this matter would have to be reopened.

Now the bishops are correct on some points.  It has been pointed out by some notable individuals, such as Jimmy Akin, that Humanae Vitae prohibits the use of contraception within the conjugal (marital) act.  Pope Paul VI is very specific in his use of the term "conjugal" as it refers to the marital act.  It is therefore presumed legitimate to use contraception outside of conjugal relations so long as the Generative Process (namely conception) hasn't occured (cf. Humanae Vitae, 14)

I can understand this thought from a theological level.  Pope Paul VI is clear that inside of the marital covenant there are no licit reasons to use contraception ever because this is one of the very terms of the covenant — to willingly and lovingly accept children as a gift from God.  However, it seems that it licit in cases of rape, incest, etc. that are outside of marital covenant to use contraception that would prevent ovulation, but not contraception that would prevent an embryo from implanting in the uterus.  Using contraception that prevents ovulation doesn't kill an already created child so I can see no real moral problems with this thought, though I'm opened to being corrected here.

My issue comes with the fact that I know of no method of contraception which definitively works only to prevent ovulation and does not prevent implantation of the child in the womb.  My real problem with the entire situation is the bishops line that "since there is serious doubt about how Plan B pills work, the Catholic Bishops of Connecticut have stated that Catholic hospitals in the State may follow protocols that do not require an ovulation test in the treatment of victims of rape." especially when the Plan B website itself says:

2. How does Plan B® work?
Plan B® contains a dose of the hormone levonorgestrel that is higher than in a single birth control pill. Levonorgestrel has been used in birth control pills for more than 35 years. Plan B® works like a birth control pill to prevent pregnancy mainly by stopping the release of an egg from the ovary. It is possible that Plan B® may also work by preventing fertilization of an egg (the uniting of sperm with the egg) or by preventing attachment (implantation) to the uterus (womb), which usually occurs beginning 7 days after release of an egg from the ovary. Plan B® will not do anything to a fertilized egg already attached to the uterus. The pregnancy will continue.

In the case of Plan B, it is very clear that one of the ways it works is as an abortifacient.  I understand the bishops are saying that if you can use Plan B to prevent ovulation, then the option of it working as an abortifacient never comes into effect but It also doesn't seem clear if Plan B always prevents ovulation.  My point is can Plan B fail in preventing ovulation and then therefore work as an abortifacient as a backup?  If this is the case then you could, as the bishops propose, give someone an ovulation test and see they have not ovulated, administer Plan B, Plan B could possibly fail to prevent ovulation and therefore act as an abortifacient.  If this even happens 1 in 1000 times, then it is too many and not a licit means of solving a problem, namely preventing the conception of a child because of rape.  To make such an argument licit, I think you have to show that either Plan B prevents ovulation in 100% of the cases or that there is a drug that only prevents ovulation and doesn't act as an abortifacient (which there may be and I'm not aware of).  I think it is irresponsible to say that since we're not sure how Plan B works, then it is OK to use it.  It is precisely because we don't know exactly how Plan B works that we should refrain from its use, lest is even lead to the death of one of God's innocent children.

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